I have assigned myself to figure something out.
I am somewhat a fan of language. I am not super good at learning new ones, I am mediocre, I guess you would say. However, I really admire language, and what it can tell you about a culture and such things.
Well, naturally that makes me a big fan of J.R.R. Tolkien’s writings and life, really. One of the best linguists in history really. Really knew his stuff.
The brief history on Tolkien that many people don’t know. Tolkien, when he was growing up, learned with his mother 7 languages, fluently, written and oral. This is before he’s even in like middle school or whatever the equivalent is.
So he goes to University (Oxford), knowing like 12 (and three dead languages) languages or something, and they don’t have one he can learn available, and he is majoring in linguistics (Doctorate program or something). So after he demonstrated his command of the language, and they were all like, sh!t, we can’t teach you anything. How about you come up with a language and we’ll give you a doctorate in linguistics.
So he writes two, for the fun of it.
One of his favorite languages or maybe more accurately, one of his more commonly known languages was the version of runic he created that became the dwarven language in the Lord of the Rings series.
Yet in all I have read, Tolkien or otherwise, I haven’t found a single reference for how the runic alphabet (futhark) actually have a religious meaning.
The most common theory is that the language originated from the middle eastern area.. either the turks or a semite country. These are the languages that the futhark resemble most in history around the time of the origin of the language as best as scholars can divine.
The only other prevailing theory is that it came much later, and was primarily influenced by the Latin alphabet.
Either way, they originated A.D. not having to do with ancient Norse history as is usually indicated by non-documented histories.
So why exactly is it that every non-documented historic site about Runes on the internet I can find tries to assign a magical property to the Runic alphabet. I cannot find a well documented site even providing a semi-solid connection between magical properties or percieved magical properties about the runes and the runes actual history.
Don’t get me wrong, I love runes, I can read and write in several versions fluently. I just don’t get it where people are making these associations. All of them seem to be recent additions to history trying.
I just don’t like historical corruption. It’s dumb.
Quote of the Entry: (from the Chat Logs)
RznDoUrdn: heh.. you said poke.
RznDoUrdn: I think I am going to compile a list of the top ten best words, and poke may make that list.
XdaphneanX: that’s a good word. yes! definitely in the top ten.